Who said this quote but for mine own part it was Greek to me?

Who said this quote but for mine own part it was Greek to me?

This expression was coined by Shakespeare, who used it literally in Julius Caesar (1:2), where Casca says of a speech by Seneca, deliberately given in Greek so that some would not understand it, “For mine own part, it was Greek to me.” It soon was transferred to anything unintelligible.

What does but for my own part it was Greek to me mean?

Casca says Cicero did speak, but Casca couldn’t understand it because he was speaking Greek. Casca, not an orator himself, doesn’t know Greek. Hence the phrase, “It was Greek to me.” Casca means that everything sounds the same in a foreign language, because it is all foreign and unintelligible.

What does the quote it was Greek to me mean?

That’s Greek to me or it’s (all) Greek to me is an idiom in English referring to an expression that is difficult to understand for the sayer. It is commonly a complex or imprecise verbal or written expression or diagram, often containing excessive use of jargon, dialect, mathematics, science, or symbols.

Who said but for mine own part it was Greek to me 10.3 R 3 *?

What’s the origin of the phrase ‘But, for my own part, it was Greek to me’? From Shakespeare’s Julius Caesar, 1601: CASSIUS Did Cicero say any thing? CASCA Ay, he spoke Greek.

What is the meaning of Greek to me?

a way of saying that you do not understand something that is said or written. Difficult to understand.

Where did its Greek to me come from?

In Julius Caesar, the Roman character Casca describes a speech made by Cicero, a scholar of Greek. * Casca, one of the conspirators who assassinates Caesar, does not speak Greek. So he says, “Those that understood him smiled at one another and shook their heads; but, for mine own part, it was Greek to me.”

What does Immitable mean?

Something that is inimitable is, literally, not able to be imitated. In actual usage the word describes things so uniquely extraordinary as to not be copied or equaled, which is why you often hear it used to praise outstanding talents or performances.

Why did the phrase it’s Greek to me come to mean what it means?

The term was first used in the Latin phrase Graecum est; non legitur, which means “It is Greek and therefore is impossible to read.” Scribes during the Middle Ages would insert this phrase when copying portions of manuscripts that they found untranslatable or illegible. …

Where does the phrase it’s all Greek to me come from?

What a blunt fellow is this grown to be?

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Original Text Modern Text
BRUTUS What a blunt fellow is this grown to be! He was quick mettle when he went to school. BRUTUS What a stupid man he’s become! He was so sharp when he was in school.

Where did the phrase it’s all Greek to me come from?

Who made the well known statement it was Greek to me?

Julius Caesar
There are lots of famous quotes in Julius Caesar, including ‘It was Greek to me’, which is often misquoted today as ‘It was all Greek to me’ (Act 1, Scene 2) , meaning ‘I didn’t understand it’.

Did Shakespeare coined the phrase ‘it’s all Greek to me’?

Other authors used a similar phrase to ‘It’s all Greek to me’ around the same time, so it can’t be said that Shakespeare coined it. There is also a medieval Latin phrase which translates as ‘ It is Greek; it cannot be read’, which is earlier and could be said to be the origin of the term. See other phrases and sayings from Shakespeare.

Is it all Greek to me?

The phrase ‘ it’s all Greek to me’ is now commonplace. Other languages which have exactly the same format as ‘It’s all Greek to me’, substituting their mutually incomprehensible language of choice are: Volapuk was a 19th century invented language considered to be more obscure than Esperanto.

What does Casca mean when he says he doesn’t speak Greek?

Casca is literally saying, “I don’t know what he said, it was in Greek and I don’t speak Greek.” But on another level, his inability to understand the language develops Casca character further. Casca is unrefined and crude, sometimes brutish.

Why is there Double Dutch in Shakespeare’s play?

In England we have double Dutch. In fact Dutch is one of the easier languages to learn for English speakers and this position is bequeathed more for political and social than linguistic ones. Shakespeare is making use of the fact that the characters are Roman and, as far as the audience would expect, couldn’t (or wouldn’t want to) speak Greek.

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